I believe that the answer to your question would be "C", peasants were freed from all traces of manorialism. I am taking manorialism to mean "putting authority for a piece of land in the hands of a lord, who then owes dues to the higher authority, and who gets those dues by working a group of serfs who owe obligations to that lord." Does that makes sense? Manorialism is the old feudal way of "peasants" working for "nobility."
The French Revolution, in its early phases, tried to get rid of the old way of government by instituting six basic reforms, the first of which, on August 4th, 1789, was the elimination of special noble privileges and a declaration of equality. Though there would be times when nobles would return to powerful positions in France, they did not have a right to claim that power...it was usually the result of the nobles having access to money and influence that other people didn't have. The people were freed from a legal obligation to a lord.
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