How, if at all, is Hamlet figuratively diseased, as distinct from literally diseased?William Shakespeare's Hamlet.

Shakespeare's Hamlet would well fit into the twenty-first century. For, his is a case of "clinical depression."  Hamlet sees his world realistically and it is--to paraphrase Wordsworth--too much with him. Recognizing the lustful urges of his mother that are inappropriate for her age, and somewhat Oediphal/complex in his anger with her, Hamlet reviles her and becomes rather misogynistic in the process as evidenced by his cruel treatment of his beloved Ophelia.   Not adept at the "situational ethics" suggested by his father, Hamlet suffers from inner conflicts as the dutiful son, who much like the "team player" at work, is asked to compromise his ethics and do what is expedient. 

Then, as he continues his self-debates about suicide and avenging his father's death, Hamlet observes the senseless sacrifice of soldiers to their cause in his conversation with Fortinbras.  After this, he experiences a delusional epiphany and decides to be the Prince of Denmark and rid his country of that which is "rotten."  He dies and leaves in his wake many other bodies--not unlike the stereo-typical "disgruntled postal worker" or campus killer.